Here we go again:
Although the abstract definition of the phrase “the people” could carry the same meaning in the Second Amendment as in the Fourth Amendment, the preamble of the Second Amendment suggests that the uses of the phrase in the First and Second Amendments are the same in referring to a collective activity. By way of contrast, the Fourth Amendment describes a right against governmental interference rather than an affirmative right to engage in protected conduct, and so refers to a right to protect a purely individual interest.
I know I've seen similar comments elsewhere, but just who does Stevens think is going to be "infringing" on the right to keep and bear arms or to assemble or to petition the government? Santa Clause? The Tooth Fairy?
ALL rights protected in the Bill of Rights are rights "against governmental interference." That's the whole stinking point!